Does that argument not apply equally to dry and wet surfaces?
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I only understood as far as "Angstrom said 'it's probably something something internal reflection but we don't actually know'". Does the rest of the math in that paper mean "and here's why he was probably right" or "and he was wrong but we still don't know the real reason"?
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This is a nice paper, I wonder what about viscosity factor as oil almost do the same and it has different viscosity and reflection surface
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Small open-pores will scatter light, and if they are filled the loss of scattering makes the surface seem darker. Matt paints contain pores to improve opacity. Wet and dry contrast ratios as a test method can quantify efficiency of the pores in order to optimise the coating.pic.twitter.com/gi6t7hvW0C
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I trust that followers observed the date on which this paper was published?
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I remember reading this a few years ago. And a week ago I tried to explain it to my four-year-old and made a total mess of it. I somehow forgot the part about internal reflection...
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Dang ! You're all over the map !
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