
huruurm in what sense weren't they commodities, in a way distinguishing them from contemporary men?
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they weren't produced to be sold in an anonymous market.
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slaves were, wherever they were found! similarly serfs, per Gogol: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dead_Souls#Title …
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early modern Russian serfs are surely an exception? also, the text linked doesn't account for the *produced* part (even if the serfs really didn't hold any vestigial customary rights)
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unfortunately we've reached the limits of my real historical knowledge :) it's an interesting idea for sure, my gut is (i) capitalism isn't really much different from premodern systems, just with lower transaction costs, and (ii) the pattern you see is proportionately general
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I think there's continuity (it's the universal process being carried out still), but certainly a phase transition (low transaction costs might even be a discriminator for what changed), so I guess I agree with qualifications.
End of conversation
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