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what's the trick here
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P(A) >= P(A & B) since P(A & B) = P(A) * P(B | A) <= P(A) since P(B|A) <= 1
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@eigenrobot’s correct, but if you’re not up for Bayes,@kilovh, you could intuit the trick by reading about the base rate fallacy.
End of conversation
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I knew the right answer but answered wrong because I am an acosmistic idealist.
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