Heritability question. Suppose we have a bunch of IQ = 150 people from a population of mean IQ = 100 (SD = 15) people.
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Replying to @eigenrobot
Suppose further than IQ is 100% genetically-determined and say 80% heritable. Suppose we take those IQ = 150 people and maroon them.
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Replying to @eigenrobot
We can get an E[IQ] for the marooned population's first generation of offspring. Can we get E[IQ] (100=original pop) for later generations?
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Replying to @eigenrobot
It seems like the answer has to be "asymptotically approaches 100" (which seems wrong?) or "cannot answer without more information. (???)
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Replying to @bobpoekert @eigenrobot
like, an offspring's IQ is drawn from a guassian whose mean is the average of their parents' IQ's?
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Replying to @bobpoekert @eigenrobot
if that's true then the mean IQ of a population shouldn't change over time unless there's selection pressure? I think?
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Replying to @bobpoekert
ummmm--I yield to @squarate on this, but the way I vaguely recall this working is: yes gaussian phenotype, from sum of many bernoulli draws;
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Replying to @eigenrobot @bobpoekert
but with a high-IQ selected sample's bernoulli ps will be different from population regression to the mean comes from . . . interactions?
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[I might be fabricating my memory of ever learning anything about this]
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