Heritability question. Suppose we have a bunch of IQ = 150 people from a population of mean IQ = 100 (SD = 15) people.
interesting--but subsequent mutations aside, reversion to mean ends after the first generation?
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Not entirely, but mostly yes.
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maybe one implication of this is that effects of developed world assortative mating are likely to come hard and fast and weird
End of conversation
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