Heritability question. Suppose we have a bunch of IQ = 150 people from a population of mean IQ = 100 (SD = 15) people.
It seems like the answer has to be "asymptotically approaches 100" (which seems wrong?) or "cannot answer without more information. (???)
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are we assuming that IQ is gaussian?
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like, an offspring's IQ is drawn from a guassian whose mean is the average of their parents' IQ's?
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if that's true then the mean IQ of a population shouldn't change over time unless there's selection pressure? I think?
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ummmm--I yield to @squarate on this, but the way I vaguely recall this working is: yes gaussian phenotype, from sum of many bernoulli draws;
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but with a high-IQ selected sample's bernoulli ps will be different from population regression to the mean comes from . . . interactions?
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[I might be fabricating my memory of ever learning anything about this]
End of conversation
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Immediate partial reversion to mean after 1 generation, then slow decline as mutational load increases to normal levels.
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interesting--but subsequent mutations aside, reversion to mean ends after the first generation?
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Not entirely, but mostly yes.
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maybe one implication of this is that effects of developed world assortative mating are likely to come hard and fast and weird
End of conversation
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