actually its only slavery if theyre from the slavic region of eurasia otherwise its just sparking human chattel
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this is an incredibly stupid thread but im trying to figure something out
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people seem to enjoy competing to find ways in which different words have unsavory histories and insist that any past connotation of a word is also a current connotation of a wordhttps://twitter.com/dumpstxrfire/status/1359969805642653696?s=19 …
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of course the origin of the word "slave" comes from Slavs, who I believe were frequently enslaved by Charlemagne or some such, to the point that Slav was to human chattel in the 9th century as Kleenex is to tissue todayhttps://twitter.com/LoicTheStoic/status/1360511201801830401?s=19 …
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we could in a sense decolonize "slave" by replacing it with a latin term (servus) but of course servant already has another modern meaning an alternative might be to use an older germanic term like "thralldom" to describe slavery with no specific ethnic affiliation
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of course this seems like an incredible waste of time because no one except internet weirdos actually associate slavery with Slavs and no one thinks especially of the sons of Lech, Czech, and Rus when people mention slaves in any common context
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so yes, we could imagine FDR demonizing cannabis as the drug menace of Mexican neerdowells when people say marijuana and in a sense yes that would be correct. in exactly the same sense that people affiliate Byzantine raiding parties with the American Civil War
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i guess in summary as an etymology enthusiast I support this principle and look forward to systematically remaking language along these lines
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