Which goes back to my earlier point - he didn't understand the points he was arguing against.
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Replying to @besttrousers @KarlMaeser and
To make my point a bit clearer: Effectively no one uses outcomes disparity as the evidence for discrimination. The existence of discrimination is independently observable! Outcome disparity is generally mentioned as a way of showing the magnitudes.
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Replying to @KarlMaeser @JacksonKernion and
1.) Because we have other evidence that it exists. Trivially the RCT evidence, but of course there are other sources.
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Replying to @besttrousers @KarlMaeser and
We have evidence of many things. We have some evidence of discrimination in favor of men. We also have evidence of no gender discrimination. We also have evidence of gender discrimination in favor of women.
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Replying to @Scientific_Bird @KarlMaeser and
More specifically, we have a lot of evidence that suggests discrimination by occupations that roughly corresponds with current within-occupation disparities.
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Replying to @Scientific_Bird @KarlMaeser and
Nope. See Bertrand and Duflo's review of the literature.
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Replying to @besttrousers @Scientific_Bird and
no idea who this dude is but how tiresome he does not follow me and I am reading this like a ghost who only cool people can see
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no im Quite enjoying this invisible Statler and Waldorf
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Replying to @eigenrobot @JacksonKernion and
Suck it Jacksonpic.twitter.com/FKAi6Rrinq
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