He just went with 1.) There are biological differences between men and women 2.) Therefore DI program will be ineffective. It's just bad logic.
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Replying to @KarlMaeser @JacksonKernion and
Which goes back to my earlier point - he didn't understand the points he was arguing against.
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Replying to @besttrousers @KarlMaeser and
To make my point a bit clearer: Effectively no one uses outcomes disparity as the evidence for discrimination. The existence of discrimination is independently observable! Outcome disparity is generally mentioned as a way of showing the magnitudes.
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Replying to @KarlMaeser @JacksonKernion and
1.) Because we have other evidence that it exists. Trivially the RCT evidence, but of course there are other sources.
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Replying to @besttrousers @KarlMaeser and
We have evidence of many things. We have some evidence of discrimination in favor of men. We also have evidence of no gender discrimination. We also have evidence of gender discrimination in favor of women.
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Replying to @Scientific_Bird @KarlMaeser and
More specifically, we have a lot of evidence that suggests discrimination by occupations that roughly corresponds with current within-occupation disparities.
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Replying to @Scientific_Bird @KarlMaeser and
Nope. See Bertrand and Duflo's review of the literature.
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no idea who this dude is but how tiresome he does not follow me and I am reading this like a ghost who only cool people can see
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Replying to @JacksonKernion @besttrousers and
no im Quite enjoying this invisible Statler and Waldorf
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