why did latin beget so many daughter languages and greek so few, considering how widespread the latter was in the roman empire? or did it and I'm even more clueless than i thought?
@erin_nerung, @eigenrobot?
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don't know much english philology actually but from a brief search seems to be the same case?
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upon review i don't see a contradiction - the norman conquerors changed english, yes, but did so primarily by replacing the english nobility with french speakers, forcing the natives w whom they communicated/to whom they issued commands to become bilingual, develop patois etc
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was greek as widespread? from what i remember, latin was the empire's commom language and greek was kept as a pet because the romans were filthy greekaboos