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"In short, white women have become accustomed to asserting power over men, especially black men, through policing." Does this sentence mean that white women are asserting power also over *white* men via cop-calling and if so, what sort of argument is this exactly?
It doesn't if the source of the power is race/police racism which seems at least strongly implied, if not stated, here.
Then why not state "black men" or "men of color, esp black men" or something along those lines?
I completely agree with that as an editing note while still thinking thay was the author's intended meaning, though I have no direct knowledge of course.
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