To judge from recent comments, it seems to be the case that at least some members of English departments in the US believe that discussion of 'race' in medieval studies began in the 2010s. This is a little surprising. In archaeology and history departments in Europe... 1/n
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For example, if you said the same thing about gender, but 50 years ago, people were using the term sex, and we were exactly stuck in those frames of cisgendered, heteronormative, binary, how is that learning a lot since 50 years ago? You just nuanced binary, hetero cis "sex"
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and thus nothing LGBTQIA, nothing past wave 1 of feminism, nothing gender, nothing transgender etc. are in those discussions. So this makes no logical sense to me. And I expect no logical sense for the rest of the social sciences if a field freezes the def. in the 60s.
End of conversation
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