So it's an argument about unequal application of the law in a grand total of about 90 cases in the past 50 years
So women, who have not committed violence, are disproportionately held responsible for those who have committed violence...
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although in many cases, those women held responsible may have been victims of violence from the same party as well.
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I just... can we be serious? Doesn't that seem like state bias against women? I'm not saying it's intentional, I'm saying it's systemic.
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