nor do the sum total of the state's actions constitute white hegemony in America. So while the specific policy of affirmative action...
through Affirmative Action programs, which are aimed at proportional representation anyway...
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although in support of AA, there has been a significant drop in the income gap, but nowhere near a similar drop in the wealth gap...
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do we think this could be due to the existence of gov't programs to address income gap (AA) but not wealth gap?
End of conversation
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