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When people of one language conquer another there is always extensive borrowing of vocabulary. There's one major exception to the rule, which is that the old Celtic languages of Britain left almost no traces in modern English (I only use three of these)https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_English_words_of_Brittonic_origin …
Very few white Americans are of any Indian descent at all but in US English dozens of words and tons of placenames have an Indian origin. The average Englishman traces most of his ancestry to the old Celts and yet almost none of their language was passed on. They lost hard.
Vocabulary doesn't equate to pronunciation though. If Shakespeare recreationists are correct than 16th century English had a very noticeable Celtic twinge to it which has since been lost (that's not the only difference though):https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YiblRSqhL04 …
I think you’re wrong. I can name lots of invasions which produced very little borrowing. Few Amerindian words in Mexican Spanish, few Turkic words in Russian, few Celtic words in French.
Some Germanic words in the Western Romance languages, some Arabic words in Spanish, but not a huge amount. What’s a huge amount? French words in English.
But John McWhorter argues that Celtic influenced English grammar. https://www.amazon.com/Our-Magnificent-Bastard-Tongue-History-ebook/dp/B001JOHCHU …
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