Uriah

In 2015 a paper was published which tried to model the major admixture events of the last 3,000 years in West Eurasians. Table S5 provides a list of all the computed events and guesses of their magnitude/timing: https://www.cell.com/current-biology/fulltext/S0960-9822%2815%2900949-5#app3 … I want to talk specifically about the Greeks

The Greek cluster is modeled as 65/35 mix of two populations most like today's Cypriot Greeks/Lithuanians and the estimated date of the mixture is 630 AD, which would conform with the arrival of Slavic tribes onto the mainland.

Here, non-Slavic Lithuanians serve as a better representation of Proto-Slavs than say, Poles because of their greater isolation (Balts are the most European Europeans) These numbers explain a bit: for example, why Greeks are less Middle Eastern than South Italians.

The Slavic migration to Greece is well known, but very little talked about. I read Norwich's great little history of Byzantium and I don't think they got one full page of attention, despite contributing a huge chunk of the ancestry of today's Greeks. People don't care about Slavs

Is there any reason to think the admixture had to be a single folk-migration? Persistent importation of slaves over many centuries culminating in a small migration would fit the historical record perfectly (& the etymology)