In 2015 a paper was published which tried to model the major admixture events of the last 3,000 years in West Eurasians. Table S5 provides a list of all the computed events and guesses of their magnitude/timing: https://www.cell.com/current-biology/fulltext/S0960-9822%2815%2900949-5#app3 … I want to talk specifically about the Greeks
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To put this in perspective, David at Eurogenes modeled Mycenenan Greeks as being as about 20% steppe herder and 80% Minoan. If these numbers are right, that would mean that Slavs had a greater genetic impact on today's Greeks than the actual Greeks themselves did.
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The principal source of ancestry belongs to the mysterious Pre-Greek population which donated the consonant clusters -nth and -ss as in Corinth or Thalassa and which may have been Pelasgian (who may themselves have been Lemnians).
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Is there any reason to think the admixture had to be a single folk-migration? Persistent importation of slaves over many centuries culminating in a small migration would fit the historical record perfectly (& the etymology)
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The Slavs in Greece arrived as raiders and conquerors. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sclaveni Genuinely Slavic Bulgarians are clearly the result of a migration and not slavery and are not so far apart genetically from Greeks.
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