I don't recall Watson using the objectionable term. He mention Creeks. It was Feller who claimed he used the word, and Watson said otherwise. I am willing to be corrected, but that's what I recall.
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I'm pretty sure Watson only spoke the objectionable term to deny that he had used it earlier (which he had not).
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The casual repetition of the word by Watson is as bad, if not worse, than Feller’s usage. Feller’s was immediately recognized as being racist, but Watson using it is a proclamation he found nothing wrong with it. Would casually repeating the N-word be met with differently?
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