@cmuratori, thanks! just thinking aloud, if the consumer still has the choice to use an entirely different platform, how does the Law manage to qualify it as tying and, even worse, classify it a monopoly? Or is my understanding of “monopoly” very limited?
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I have not been following the Google trial myself, but, for example, I hear that there is internal Google mail stating that the cost to run the Play Store would put the royalty around 6%, not 30%. So a jury would be presented with that kind of evidence, etc.
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Separately, "consumer harm" is not about preventing harm to consumers in general. It is a limiting principle _applied to restraint of trade_. So the question is not "does it harm consumers", full stop.
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But relying on “experts” in economy is same unreliable as relying on “experts” in software development, no?
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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