well... no? people are consistently talking about it as if it demonstrates the existence of free will. it doesn't; if you take free will *as a postulate* it demonstrates consequences of that. Conway then demonstrates free will by handwaving.
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no, you've just kept saying it, but because Conway's model doesn't say anything at all about where its free will comes from, it cannot do that because it is completely disjoint from the question
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and if that were in fact the only kind that could work the model remains serenely undisturbed
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