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Legit question: didn't the interim president invoke a clause that legislature leader can assume presidency with support of the house if presidency is vacant? The house asserts presidency is vacant because of widely criticised "illegitimate" elections? If yes, that is a coup?
There is no country in the world where Office of President becomes 'vacant' due to criticism. Elections are regularly contested everywhere, all of the time--that alone amounts to no verdict on the legitimacy of said election. The presidency was never vacant.
Ok. Thanks for your thoughts 
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