I guess my question would not be about empty landscape but whether people there called themselves Frisians
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Replying to @Karanthir @MariusHollenga
Indeed! But unanswerable as were largely non-literate & external sources seem to be automatically suspect! ;)
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(Perhaps similar in this to debate on whether immigrant groups in 6thC E. Britain called themselves Anglians >
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> or not; fwiw, I'd prob cite Procopius here too as a starting point...! ;) )
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Replying to @caitlinrgreen @MariusHollenga
It's nearly impossible to know what any pre-modern illiterate people called themselves, but you can ask how >
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> literate societies knew what to call them. Was it from the people themselves or part of a tradition?
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Replying to @Karanthir @MariusHollenga
Can't disagree! Just worry that suggestion=prob tradition driven by conclusions already drawn re: emptiness of >
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> 5-6thC Frisia (on which cf. arch invisibility of 5-6thC Britons & ppl of N Gaul?) & didn't in any case work>
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> for Procopius, who has Frisians in non-traditional locale & seems to be working from 6thC oral reports! :)
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Replying to @caitlinrgreen @MariusHollenga
But that is a problem for locating Frisians in Frisia itself in 5th-6thC >
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True! However, it nonetheless suggests that ethnonym Frisian was still current in that era, which is arguably a >
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> point of considerable significance! ;) & in absence of any evidence for them in 4thC Britain, is suggestive :)
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Replying to @caitlinrgreen @MariusHollenga
I will certainly not argue with the significance and suggestiveness of this evidence!
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End of conversation
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