@Karanthir @MariusHollenga > 'lack' of 5th-6thC textual evidence for Britons in east often treated similarly too, fwiw? (Btw, on 5th-6thC >
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>after couple of generations of declaring Britons all gone, now mostly happy to say just can't see in 5-6thC etc!
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I guess my question would not be about empty landscape but whether people there called themselves Frisians
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Indeed! But unanswerable as were largely non-literate & external sources seem to be automatically suspect! ;)
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(Perhaps similar in this to debate on whether immigrant groups in 6thC E. Britain called themselves Anglians >
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> or not; fwiw, I'd prob cite Procopius here too as a starting point...! ;) )
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It's nearly impossible to know what any pre-modern illiterate people called themselves, but you can ask how >
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> literate societies knew what to call them. Was it from the people themselves or part of a tradition?
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Can't disagree! Just worry that suggestion=prob tradition driven by conclusions already drawn re: emptiness of >
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