H.R. 1 is written as if nobody outside of Democratic party activists was ever supposed to read it.
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Problem #3 is what happened in Pennsylvania: Rs cut a deal, Ds pocketed the parts they liked, then got friendly courts to throw out the parts they didn't.
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Problem #4 is that no party serious about a deal on voting/elections would roll it into a megabill with campaign finance, political speech, redistricting, restructuring the FEC, etc.
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I don't understand what this means, ie, I can't pare this language. To the extent that I can, I am struggling to find a reason why a nation should not have national/automatic voter registration? What is the normative claim here?
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