Near as I can tell the charges are making the House mad and being mean I didn't see anything about poll tested bribery that lasted a week and didn't make it into the 2 articles
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So the theory is that the House can impeach for bribery based on corrupt intent but no other high crimes or misdemeanors can be based on intent?
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Bribery is a specifically defined crime, and "intent" is not general - it requires a particular kind of overt act.
End of conversation
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It's my understanding that "Bribery" as written under Impeachment in the Constitution only refers to the President "accepting" a bribe. i.e. the President accepting a wad of cash in exchange for a political favor.
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