Isn't that pretty close to what SCOTUS said when they reversed Bob McDonald's conviction? An otherwise lawful act can't be made a crime because of political motivation?
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My point of disagreement is more with his view that the rejection of "maladministration" as a basis for impeachment means the Framers required a specific crime. Which is just wrong, historically.
End of conversation
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I wouldn't think his Article II powers include extorting support for his campaign from other countries. Guess I'll have to go back and read it.
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The argument is about the stuff in the 2d half of the Mueller Rpt, not Ukraine.
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It’s always seemed odd to me how quickly people accept Congress’ plenary power when it comes to impeachment but don’t accept the President’s plenary power under Article II
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