In 2012, Mitt Romney won 51% of voters with a college degree (no postgrad), 53% of married women, & won white women 56-42, widest margin of any candidate since Reagan in 84. Driving those voters off is a choice.https://twitter.com/janecoaston/status/1024333095271579649 …
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Anyway, here is the shift in the two-party vote from 1924 to 1928, by state. Massive Dem gains in a whole bunch of states they still lost, but that made them competitive again (states in purple flipped R to D):pic.twitter.com/JguNSVD6sZ
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And at last we arrive at your real point.
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When Nixon did a “Southern Strategy” it wasn’t at the expense of the ability to win Northern states the GOP was competitive in.
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Without defending FDR/1930s Democrats' racial attitudes, there is quite a difference between pursuing a "Southern Strategy" decades before the Civil Rights Movement and launching it just after its peak, with an aim to harness revanchist resentment of the Civil Rights Movement.
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Only the tip of the iceberg of the problem with the narrative. But if you're still talking about Nixon 50 years later, you should really be addressing what came before Nixon as well. The fight for white southern voters covers nearly a century of history from ~1928-2010.
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Fair enough, but then how do you call 1928-32 D a successful rebranding and not 1968-72 R?
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Really? Nixon's best southern performance in '68 was FL, with 40.53%. He won 4 southern states, fewer than Wallace. If Wallace doesn't run, Humphrey wins, and this talk of a Nixon southern strategy wouldn't exist at all. In '72, Nixon won 49 states. Southern, or national?
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Anyone who talks about Richard Nixon having a "Southern Strategy" reveals that they are completely ignorant of American politics and should not be taken seriously. Prove me wrong.
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Nixon was far more recent
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