The habit some people have of using "capitalism" as a synonym for "oppression" (I do it too) is of course a direct contradiction with Marx, and with shit they themselves say about capitalism being a recent historical invention
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I've never really seen a satisfying explanation on why feudalism isn't a form of capitalism (with land as the means of production)
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Because the definition of "capitalism" is abstracting those social relationships into something infinitely transferrable, divisible, transformable, etc. -- a physical farm or a mill or whatever can instantly become an amount of money that turns into something else
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