and (2) an "underpinning of democracy" is new since 1968?
It arose around the same time in the USA, where legislature and executive are separate.
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I tend to assume it's part of the general managerial revolution, along with the "post-war consensus" in politics.
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but I'm interested in alternative theories. The idea that it is *more* democratic to do things this way is new to me.
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Independent power? I was talking about impartiality.
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How is "separation of powers" not about power?
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Impartiality is a duty, not a power.
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How does the separation of powers, which you brought up, not me, come into it then?
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I get impartiality. If a CS is too tied to a party, then when that party leaves, he leaves, replacement lacks experience...
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..and possibly ability, government becomes amateurish and incompetent. As was the case before 1850s
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