To make the claim made in the first paragraph, the author should have given concrete examples of differences in translation. It's not clear if the conclusions that follow are translation or interpretation differences.
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Hostias no lo había sospechado nunca, eh?
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“[T]he ancient picture of reality might be in many significant respects more accurate than ours,” why does the author throw this in at the end of the article without any explanation
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It strikes me this isn't a new interpretation, but in fact represents the Gnostic reading of Paul (and John)
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