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RE @a_a_jackson's outstanding paper, https://www.odi.org/sites/odi.org.uk/files/resource-documents/12269.pdf …, any thoughts on why Taliban in the North and North West contain more criminal elements? I certainly have ideas, but would like to hear other thoughts on this.
Thanks for the kind words! Hmmm, very good question. Not sure there is less "crime" elsewhere (ahem, poppy) but maybe its just that there is less consolidation of political orders. Which means that even illicit activities become less consolidated.
Thanks for the reply! I was wondering if the North not being a Pashtun area had any effect on this, and also is there was more opportunity, being able to to transport drugs via Tajikistan?
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