Conservatives argue that countries like Sweden disprove feminist claims that career choices shaped by gender norms. Because countries have strong commitment to gender equality, fact that people go into "traditional" jobs proves preferences are natural. This reasoning is false. 1/
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Conservatives are right that Scandinavian countries have both high levels of female workforce participation (90+%) and relatively segregated workforces, with women working more in "traditional" fields like education. But this is the product of politics and history, not nature. 2/
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The labor force segregation has everything to do with the timing of the transition from single-male breadwinner model (back) to dual workforce participation. In Sweden, push for gender equality in 1960s was in response to fears of labor shortage 3/
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Yet expected private sector job growth never arrived due to 1970s slowdown. Instead, the public sector absorbed the influx of women - education, childcare, social services. The labor force was segregated because these were the only new jobs. 4/
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Is there any evidence for this?
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