Yes. But that general diagram has been in action since circa 3500BC. You need a lot more to arrive at a coherent reading of capitalism through an accelerationist prism.
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you have to produce something before being able to consume, hence supply yields its own demand.
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Your conclusion doesn't exactly follow from your premise.
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And why produce something for which no demand exists? U might also say (just as accurately) demand creates its own supply. the problem with both statements is that the flow of income in the economy is circular. there's no time zero from which the whole of economic activity begins
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i don't really disagree, the point is that you need to produce before you can consume, which establishes at least a logical precedence of production (if not necessarily a temporal one). otherwise I agree, a circuit is a matter of auto-production.
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the point is that aggregate supply creates aggregate demand (income is expenditure), not that production precedes consumption
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that's the neoclassical reading, yes.
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and say's reading: "As each of us can only purchase the productions of others with his own productions – as the value we can buy is equal to the value we can produce, the more men can produce, the more they will purchase."
End of conversation
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