When I first learned the story of Skewes’ number (possibly from Derb’s book about the Riemann Hypothesis?) I nearly fell off my chair from the shock.
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BTW here’s a nifty proof of why that bizarre trig integral equals pi/2 until it doesn’t: http://www.schmid-werren.ch/hanspeter/publications/2014elemath.pdf …
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"k < n" is true for all k < n but false for k = n.
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Not that low entropy!
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The real challenge being finding a definition for "low-entropy" that makes the claim neither trivial nor impossible?
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My hunch is that this turns out to be equivalent to the problem of logical probability/logical induction (in the
@MIRIBerkeley sense).
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