This passage only really makes sense with 1 Maccabees which your Bible likely won’t have.
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Not something I’ve spent much time looking into, but from what I recall the Apocrypha aren’t considered part of the Bible primarily because they aren’t considered to have been divinely inspired. (Having been written after the last of the prophets.)
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Actually, here’s a pretty good, more detailed summation of the Jewish approach to them.https://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/3671027/jewish/What-Is-the-Jewish-Approach-to-the-Apocrypha.htm …
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