If you have access to large amounts of cheap slave labor, you have far less of an incentive for technological production innovation than somebody who only has access to more expensive volunteer labor. In the latter case, you need inovation to remain economically viable.
Why did capitalism take off fastest in countries that did not have slaves? International slave trading was going on for over 1000 years, largely run by the Muslims – why did they not have an industrial revolution?https://twitter.com/BlogsJay/status/1100806130748538880 …
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Plot twist in the reparation debate. Hey Arabia, when are you going to pay the African American community - getting some of that black gold money.
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Because the industrial revolution and accompanying investment in new technology only makes sense when labour costs are high.
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it has more to do with local values and entrepreneurship, and commerce. Latin america banned slaves early in the 19th century, and theyre still in development. The USA, still had slaves in 1860 but was developing faster
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Internal strife.
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Why have an industrial revolution when your labor is free and the focus only stays on keeping and getting more of that labor........
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Stop this man, stop him from telling the truth
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Wern't the southern states of the early US (pre civil war) very poor as a direct result of the economic effects of slavery?
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If you only have sand to sell, the profits from owning and using slaves do not benefit the economy as much as growing and selling cotton or tobacco.
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Because they had Sultans whose biggest concern was that everyone obey his false interpretation of the Koran. The interpretation had to be false because if the Koran was interpreted correctly it would say the Sultan was a hypocrite and on J-day Angels will drag him to lower hell.pic.twitter.com/XpefSfzrhM
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What about the golden age?
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I'm sure you think the answer to that question can fit in a pithy tweet.
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