Stefan MolyneuxVerified account

Right from 25 percent GDP to 1 percent in almost 100 years of time span. 3 million souls left to die in a famine because Churchill wanted to keep the food stocks up for the "privileged" How kind is that. Using is not abusing. #Wakandamoment #supremacy #wow

https://twitter.com/crimesofbrits/status/1096701235871272960?s=19 …

They started , you finished. Both of you have equal share. You may want to study the World GDP share for last 2000 years where India and China together shared nearly 60% of the world’s GDP for 1000 years

It's because of how fast other countries had developed during industrial revolution, NOT because of india's economy was shrinking, or even stagnating..

That’s the point. Brits looted India in toto , invested heavily in industrialisation and restricted the outcome of industrialisation for themselves.

How could your industry be restricted if during the period your total production increase enormously? Hell, on the source that I use in different table you can also even see how indian wages increased and clothes price decreased at that time

Contradicted !! As if only cotton industry was under revolution. Pls check per capita GDP before colonisation and after . This should give a clear picture. Pushing ~75K Indians to lose lives in WW was an additional ‘gift’. Past is painful, better look forward

Well you can't look forward if you keep blaming everyone else but you. British can't control how many children every indian mothers birthed. This (malthusian trap) is why your per capita GDP decrease even though indian workers have increased wages, extremely high birthrate.