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wait ok so why exactly does that analogy not work at all? I understand there are a lot of parts to the dollar and that's only one of them, but I *do* fundamentally think that monetary policy changes impact the effective circulating USD which in turn impact USD based markets...
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two main issues: 1) you don't define MMT (implying maybe its something like "printing money nonstop") 2) you are mixing QE (unclear impact , see Japan from early 2000 onward...) with massive deficit spending by US govt (which is HUGELY bullish airdrop style stimulus to economy)
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