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I mean, it's not a paradox, but it loses predictiveness. I also don't agree with (a) and how it interacts with (b) because losses are unbounded on both sides and optional stopping is infinite for St. Petersburg? So I don't think you can have both (a) and (b).
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in practice nothing is infinite and you're never offered potentially infinitely many identical coinflips for all your money and if you instead restrict to finite reasonable conditions you end up with "small % of huge payoff" which can in fact be worth a lot!
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