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It is indeed possible that this is true; this is simply a claim that small but nonzero fee is generally optimal but we make no claim about its total utility. (Though the PDE and the explicit result we give depends on having a quadratic cost function.)
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I mean, it's not a paradox, but it loses predictiveness. I also don't agree with (a) and how it interacts with (b) because losses are unbounded on both sides and optional stopping is infinite for St. Petersburg? So I don't think you can have both (a) and (b).
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