Right. So each bet can be maximized using Kelly and betting higher than this value leads risk of ruin to converge to 1 in an infinite series of bets. Is this a false statement?
1) I don't care about an infinite series of bets, we only have finite series of bets
2) do you not care that upside and expected wealth converge to infinity quickly in those cases? Are you approximating X*Y where x --> inf and y --> 0 as 0?