we haven't found any compiler that assumes a [0] element of array doesn't alias a [1] element of array if that's your concern.
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The question is basically can an [M] array lvalue "alias" a length-M subrange of an [N] array? (M<N)
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IMO no actual aliasing takes place because the _array_ is never accessed; it just decays to a pointer into big array.
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But what about (*p)[-1]? Might compilers (wrongly?) treat it as undefined?
End of conversation
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