It is a reasonable question to ask why the residual differences among samples. Is there a reason some gun death rates are higher of lower for similar rates of gun ownership. Is it chance or are there other factors that we could identify that would lead to solutions.
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I do understand how gun sellers play on this to drive gun sales. I live in GA. We have very liberal gun laws. Even in the wake of the mass shootings, we passed the most liberal gun laws imaginable. No gun owner in GA has any rational fear of losing their guns?
Nobody has to play on it. All you have to do is say “gun law” and they run to the store.