Steve CoxKonto zweryfikowane

I’m a data guy, too. I’ll take that as a no on both counts.

It is a reasonable question to ask why the residual differences among samples. Is there a reason some gun death rates are higher of lower for similar rates of gun ownership. Is it chance or are there other factors that we could identify that would lead to solutions.

You’re still not answering my questions. Do I have to ask again?

You offer nothing but anecdotes but expect answers in 1 minute. You offer evidence, not anecdotes, but evidence of all the claims you have put forward in this thread. I'll work not on the homicide one. Get back to you.

1993 to current, down by half here. (There’s more to this. We’ll see if you figure it out.) Gun ownership has skyrocketed in that time. So, how has it dropped by half? France to England, same gun-homicide rate, but France has 5x the rate of gun ownership. Why?

There isn’t truly reliable data on households with firearms. Gun owners tend to lie when surveyed out of paranoia that their guns will be taken.

I believe people probably don't answer truthfully when surveyed about guns. My point is there is what you believe & what we know or can estimate. If polls are all we have, do we just toss results that don't conform to our beliefs. What evidence do you use to make judgements?