The rationalization for the Roman position on divorce is that the pauline exception & other grounds for divorce apply to natural marriage only
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But if 1st c Christians could marry and divorce heathen wives, surely Rome ought not to consecrate marriages marriages between papists and heathens in TCY?
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More common law marriages?
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Right. Or civil. If marriages between pious Bavarians and their apostate spouses didn’t work out, then the pious spouse could claim divorce under Pauline exception
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