I'm curious. How do Protestants (not Anglicans necessarily) explain Marian apparitions, which are remarkably well attested to down the centuries, in the Catholic, Orthodox, and Coptic lands?
as theology, mariolatry was largely an after-effect of schismatic squabble between alexandrian and antiochean christology
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as folk religion it was a survival from paganism at a time when europe was half-christianized the iconophiles were driven more by economics and factional politics than by an honest desire to glorify Christ and His martyrs
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So you reject the Council?
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It’s complicated - after Chalcedon the councils got increasingly bound up with, and dependent on, Byz politics, plus fallout over the dueling anathemas from the splinter Eastern churches
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I think the basic gist of II° Nicaea - to deny Hieria recognition as an ecumenical council, to forbid the worship of images while de-criminalizing their use in sacred art - was wise
End of conversation
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