I'm curious. How do Protestants (not Anglicans necessarily) explain Marian apparitions, which are remarkably well attested to down the centuries, in the Catholic, Orthodox, and Coptic lands?
i think so but i would have to consult my chart of the major councils to give a firm opinion imvho competition for state patronage and purity-spiral dynamics b/w antioch and alexandria led to all the nasty heresies around the time of chalcedon
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as theology, mariolatry was largely an after-effect of schismatic squabble between alexandrian and antiochean christology
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as folk religion it was a survival from paganism at a time when europe was half-christianized the iconophiles were driven more by economics and factional politics than by an honest desire to glorify Christ and His martyrs
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So you reject the Council?
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It’s complicated - after Chalcedon the councils got increasingly bound up with, and dependent on, Byz politics, plus fallout over the dueling anathemas from the splinter Eastern churches
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I think the basic gist of II° Nicaea - to deny Hieria recognition as an ecumenical council, to forbid the worship of images while de-criminalizing their use in sacred art - was wise
End of conversation
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