I'm curious. How do Protestants (not Anglicans necessarily) explain Marian apparitions, which are remarkably well attested to down the centuries, in the Catholic, Orthodox, and Coptic lands?
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One can of course believe this to be the case, but the veneration of saints is such an early feature of the faith that one ends up saying "Martin, you are my Luther, and on this Luther I will build my true church... 1500 years from now."
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you think iraeneus and pappias show the same level of veneration for the dead as the medievals? obv in the church there must be adiaphora, and sometimes things that are inoffensive at one pt become impious by association with new heresies
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So you would claim veneration to be heretical at the time of Nicaea II which condemned the iconoclasts?
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i think so but i would have to consult my chart of the major councils to give a firm opinion imvho competition for state patronage and purity-spiral dynamics b/w antioch and alexandria led to all the nasty heresies around the time of chalcedon
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as theology, mariolatry was largely an after-effect of schismatic squabble between alexandrian and antiochean christology
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as folk religion it was a survival from paganism at a time when europe was half-christianized the iconophiles were driven more by economics and factional politics than by an honest desire to glorify Christ and His martyrs
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So you reject the Council?
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It’s complicated - after Chalcedon the councils got increasingly bound up with, and dependent on, Byz politics, plus fallout over the dueling anathemas from the splinter Eastern churches
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