I think Freud may have been right about many things too, but (in the 2nd version of his theory) only for Ashkenazim.
Do you agree with the thrust of the twin-concordance argument against genetics causing the "innate substrate", though?
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I agree there has likely been some kind of neutral drift whereby whatever causes homos in 2016, didn't in AD 1400 (or 400 BC)
End of conversation
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