I feel like that line of thinking opens an unwieldy rabbit hole where we would continue to trace back the lineage of philosophical tradition much further than necessary.
Would you say that it is morally ok if an aristocracy owns most of the resources and forces an impoverished majority to work for them?
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If resources are allocated in a way that leads to bad societal outcomes, it could make sense to change property rights, no?
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And this is exactly what I was referring to when I called Marx's theory a moral framework. The fact that it is a moral framework is precisely why it is so easy to interpret as a justification for violence.
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